• Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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    5 hours ago

    Socialism is pre-communism. Communism itself cannot fully exist until global socialism, but each individual country can begin the transition between capitalism and communism called “socialism.” Socialist states aren’t communist not because of imperialist aggression, but because communism itself is a higher, global mode of production.

    Socialist countries exist under siege, but generally commit far less harm than capitalist countries.

    Returning to the original comment, you just seem generally mixed up on terms and are drawing false conclusions from them.

    • Tartas1995@discuss.tchncs.de
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      3 hours ago

      I am not mixing up the terms.

      Socialist countries aren’t communist, you call them pre-communist which highlights my point.

      In my original comment, I make clear that if you want to count these countries as communist countries, you can but then you have to acknowledge the siege (as you call it). In this comment, you agree that they (the socialist countries that you chose to count as communist countries to even get this far into the argument) are under siege and consequently don’t behave as they would otherwise. By agreeing to that, you agree to my second point. You keep repeating the “less than capitalist countries” as if i was arguing that at all. Nowhere i said anything about them doing more or less harm than any other entity.

      You should really ask yourself what you are arguing with whom. I mean i could start arguing with you that the earth isn’t flat and act like you said that if that helps you to understand.

      • davel [he/him]@lemmy.ml
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        47 minutes ago

        Socialist countries aren’t communist, you call them pre-communist which highlights my point.

        This is just quibbling over semantics & context. When communists run a state, yes that state is technically socialist/pre-communist. That’s why those states have “Socialist” in their names and not “Communist.” There is never going to be a “communist state,” because definitionally communism’s long-term end-goal is a classless society. And since we define the state as a system which protects the interests of one economic class over others, such a society would definitionally be stateless.

        So when someone—assuming they know what they’re talking about—says “communist state/country,” they mean a communist-led socialist state.

      • Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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        3 hours ago

        Communism is both a mode of production, and a process. Socialist countries run by communist parties are properly communist in that they are building communism in the real world. This is why Marx states in The German Ideology that

        Communism is for us not a state of affairs which is to be established, an ideal to which reality [will] have to adjust itself. We call communism the real movement which abolishes the present state of things. The conditions of this movement result from the premises now in existence.

        The point isn’t that socialist countries would be in that higher mode of production if they weren’t under siege, or that they aren’t sufficiently communist, but that they must build up state power to resist this siege, and as a consequence this state power sometimes commits excesses and mistakes.